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NEW QUESTION # 112
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
- A. IPS Protections
- B. Protections
- C. Profiles
- D. ThreatWiki
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the Learn More About Threat Signatures4, to quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, you can use the IPS Protections tool. This tool shows you the date and time of the last update, as well as the number of signatures and their categories. Learn More About Threat Signatures
NEW QUESTION # 113
The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:
- A. SmartView
- B. SmartEventWeb
- C. There is no Web application for SmartEvent
- D. SmartView Monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
SmartView is the web application for real-time event monitoring in SmartEvent R80 and above.It provides a unified view of security events across the network and allows for quick investigation and response34. SmartEvent R80.40 Administration Guide,SmartView
NEW QUESTION # 114
Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?
- A. Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.
- B. Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.
- C. Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.
- D. Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT because it allows the administrator to define the NAT rules in any order and position1.Automatic NAT creates the NAT rules automatically and places them at the top or bottom of the NAT Rule Base2. Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?
- A. Networks
- B. Machines
- C. Time
- D. Users
Answer: C
Explanation:
The following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object:Time4.An Access Role Object is a way to define a group of users based on four criteria: Networks, Users, Machines, and Locations5. Networks are IP addresses or network objects that represent the source or destination of the traffic. Users are user accounts or user groups from an identity source such as LDAP or RADIUS. Machines are endpoints that are identified by MAC addresses or certificates. Locations are geographical regions based on IP addresses. Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 116
Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.
- A. Inactive
- B. Failed
- C. Down
- D. No Response
Answer: C
Explanation:
When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displaysDownfor the given VPN tunnel1. This means that the VPN tunnel is not operational and there is no IKE or IPsec traffic passing through it. No Response, Inactive, and Failed are not valid statuses for VPN tunnels in SmartView Monitor. Smart View Monitor displays status for all S2S VPN tunnels - Phase1 UP
NEW QUESTION # 117
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?
- A. SmartConsole
- B. Security Management Server
- C. SmartConsole and Security Management Server
- D. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are the components that can store logs in the Check Point Security Management Architecture. The Security Management Server stores logs in a database and can also forward them to external log servers. The Security Gateway can store logs locally in a buffer or a local log file, and can also send them to the Security Management Server or a log server.
NEW QUESTION # 118
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?
- A. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.
- B. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
- C. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
- D. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways that have the same security requirements. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to. For example, a zone can be defined as internal, external, DMZ, VPN, etc. Security zones are supported by Check Point firewalls and can be used to simplify security policies and network segmentation. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more zones as source or destination objects. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask is not considered part of the zone, but rather a property of the interface.[Security Zones], [Security Zones Best Practices]
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
- A. Logs and Monitor
- B. Gateway and Servers
- C. Manage and Command Line
- D. Security Policies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Manage and Command Line is not a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole, as it does not exist in the interface.The image shows the navigation toolbar of the R80 SmartConsole, which has four tabs: Security Policies, Logs & Monitor, Gateways & Servers, and Manage & Settings1.The Command Line Interface button is located in the system information area, not in the navigation toolbar1.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?
- A. One-time Password
- B. Internal Certificate Authority
- C. Certificate
- D. Token
Answer: A
Explanation:
A one-time password is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server. The administrator generates a one-time password from SmartConsole and enters it on the gateway command line interface using the cpconfig command. This establishes a Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between the gateway and the server . The other options are not used for this purpose. [Configuring Secure Internal Communication (SIC)], [Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation]
NEW QUESTION # 121
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?
- A. SmartDirectory Group
- B. User Group
- C. Access Role
- D. Group Template
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy is an Access Role.An Access Role object defines a set of users, machines, or networks that can access a resource or service1, p. 27.An Access Role object can include LDAP groups as one of its components2, p. 10. Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation,Check Point Identity Awareness Administration Guide R81
NEW QUESTION # 122
Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.
- A. Username/password or Kerberos Ticket
- B. Certificate
- C. Token
- D. Shared secret
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Endpoint identity agent uses a username/password or Kerberos ticket for user authentication3, p. 28. An Endpoint identity agent is a lightweight client installed on endpoint computers that communicates with Identity Awareness gateways and provides reliable identity information. An Endpoint identity agent does not use a shared secret, a token, or a certificate for user authentication. Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, [Check Point Identity Awareness Administration Guide R81]
NEW QUESTION # 123
Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?
- A. Log server IP address.
- B. Client machine IP address.
- C. Gateway proxy IP address.
- D. Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Identity Awareness is a blade that enables administrators to define access rules based on the identity of users and machines, rather than just IP addresses. Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on three items: network location, the identity of a user, and the identity of a machine. Network location refers to the source or destination network segment of the traffic. The identity of a user refers to the username or group membership of the user who initiates or receives the traffic. The identity of a machine refers to the hostname or certificate of the machine that initiates or receives the traffic. [Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide]
NEW QUESTION # 124
Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Two
- D. Five
Answer: A
Explanation:
Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least three interfaces4. These are:
Async interfacefor synchronizing state information between cluster members.
Acluster interfacefor sending and receiving cluster control packets.
Aproduction interfacefor handling regular traffic that passes through the cluster4. Check Point R80.20 - How to configure Cluster firewalls - First Time Setup
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?
- A. Padlock
- B. Eyeglasses
- C. Pencil
- D. Book
Answer: C
Explanation:
The icon in the WebUI that indicates that read/write access is enabled is thePencilicon . The Pencil icon appears next to the name of the device when it is in Read/Write mode, which allows making changes to the configuration. The Padlock icon indicates that read-only access is enabled, which prevents making changes to the configuration. The Book icon indicates that online help is available, which provides information and guidance on using the WebUI. The Eyeglasses icon indicates that a view-only mode is enabled, which allows viewing the configuration without logging in.
NEW QUESTION # 126
What is a role of Publishing?
- A. The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways
- B. Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base
- C. The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways
- D. The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public is the correct answer. This is because publishing is the process of saving your changes to the database and making them available to other administrators. Publishing also allows you to install policies on Security Gateways. [Publishing Changes]
NEW QUESTION # 127
With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?
- A. The end user credentials.
- B. The complete communication is sent for inspection.
- C. The host portion of the URL.
- D. The IP address of the source machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
With URL Filtering, only the host portion of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis. The host portion is the part of the URL that identifies the web server, such as www.example.com.The Check Point Online Web Service uses this information to categorize the URL and return the appropriate action to the Security Gateway3. The other options are not sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis, as they may contain sensitive or irrelevant data.
NEW QUESTION # 128
Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?
- A. Small Business and Branch Office Appliances
- B. Enterprise Network Security Appliances
- C. Rugged Appliances
- D. Scalable Platforms
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most Check Point deployments use Gaia, which is a unified operating system for all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized gateways. However, some product deployments utilize special Check Point code, such as Scalable Platforms (formerly known as Maestro), which are high-performance security gateways that can scale up to 1.5 Tbps of firewall throughput.Scalable Platforms use a special version of Gaia OS called Gaia Embedded, which is planned to be unified with Gaia OS in R81.102. Check Point R81 Release Notes
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?
- A. Diffie-Hellman Private Key
- B. Symmetrical IPSec key
- C. Diffie-Hellman Public Key
- D. Pre-shared secret
Answer: B
Explanation:
The key that is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN is a symmetrical IPSec key3.This key is used to encrypt and decrypt the data that is exchanged between the VPN peers3.The symmetrical IPSec key is derived from the shared secret and the Diffie-Hellman public keys that are exchanged during Phase 13. Site to Site VPN in R80.x - Tutorial for Beginners
NEW QUESTION # 130
R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:
- A. Gaia only
- B. SecurePlatform only
- C. Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows
- D. Windows only
Answer: A
Explanation:
R80 is supported by Gaia only, which is Check Point's unified security operating system for all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized gateways1, p. 14. Windows and SecurePlatform are not supported by R80. Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, [Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)]
NEW QUESTION # 131
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.
- A. Sent to the Security Administrator.
- B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
- C. Stored on the Security Management Server.
- D. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is stored on the Certificate Revocation List (CRL)1, p. 47.The CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked before their expiration date4. Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation,Free Check Point CCSA Sample Questions and Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 132
You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?
- A. Contact ISP to block the traffic.
- B. Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.
- C. Create a policy rule to block the traffic.
- D. Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The BEST immediate action to take when you have discovered suspicious activity in your network is to create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.A suspicious action rule is a special type of rule that is triggered when a predefined condition is met, such as a malicious file download, a ransomware attack, or a data exfiltration attempt13. A suspicious action rule can block the traffic, quarantine the source, or send an alert to the administrator. Creating a policy rule to block the traffic may not be effective if the traffic does not match the rule criteria or if the policy installation is delayed. Waiting until traffic has been identified before making any changes may allow the threat to spread or cause more damage. Contacting ISP to block the traffic may not be feasible or timely, and may also affect legitimate traffic. Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide,Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation | Udemy
NEW QUESTION # 133
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